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Gittin 84: Absurd Conditions for Divorce

More other conditions that a husband might stipulate in a bill of divorce – for example, if he stipulates that she now marry another specific man — then the divorce will take effect. But does that work? Or what if the condition is something that isn’t humanly possible? Or on condition that she do a sin against the Torah? Also, what about when the condition is written into the get? Isn’t that automatically a problem? It may actually depend on where in the get it’s written (or said, for that matter) — namely, it has to be stipulated after the “toref” of the get – the part with the people’s names and the date and so on.

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Anne and Yardaena

Anne Gordon is the deputy editor of Ops & Blogs at The Times of Israel. She is a veteran educator, having taught in high school and post-high school institutions in Israel and America for several decades. Yardaena Osband is a pediatrician and teaches in her community and online. They both hail from Boston, proud alumna of Maimonides School, where they first learned Gemara. Talking Talmud is their conversation (via podcast) on the daf yomi. They say: "Learning the daf? We have something for you to think about. Not learning the daf? We have something for you to think about! (Along with a taste of the daf...) Join the conversation with us!"
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