More other conditions that a husband might stipulate in a bill of divorce – for example, if he stipulates that she now marry another specific man — then the divorce will take effect. But does that work? Or what if the condition is something that isn’t humanly possible? Or on condition that she do a sin against the Torah? Also, what about when the condition is written into the get? Isn’t that automatically a problem? It may actually depend on where in the get it’s written (or said, for that matter) — namely, it has to be stipulated after the “toref” of the get – the part with the people’s names and the date and so on.

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