Kiddushin 10

אמר רבי זירא מודה רבי לענין קנס דכולהו משלמי מאי שנא מקטלא שאני התם דאמר קרא ומת האיש אשר שכב עמה לבדו

Rabbi Zeira said: Rabbi Yehuda HaNasi concedes with regard to the fine of a rapist and a seducer that they all pay this fine, and they are not exempt merely because their acts of intercourse were with a non-virgin. The Gemara asks: In what way is this case different from the death penalty? With respect to the death penalty they are punished as though they engaged in intercourse with a betrothed non-virgin, and yet concerning the fine, they pay as though they engaged in intercourse with a virgin. The Gemara answers: It is different there, with regard to capital punishment, as the verse states: “Then the man only who lay with her shall die” (Deuteronomy 22:25), which indicates that only one man is executed for having sexual intercourse with a virgin, and no more.

ורבנן האי לבדו מאי עבדי ליה מיבעי להו לכדתניא ומתו גם שניהם עד שיהיו שוין כאחד דברי רבי אושעיא רבי יונתן אומר ומת האיש אשר שכב עמה לבדו

The Gemara asks: And the Rabbis, what do they do with this term “only”? The Gemara answers: They require it for that which is taught in a baraita. The verse states: “Then they shall both of them die” (Deuteronomy 22:22). This indicates that this is not the case unless the two of them are equal, i.e., both deserve punishment. But if one of them cannot be punished, e.g., if he is a minor, the other is not executed either. This is the statement of Rabbi Oshaya. Rabbi Yonatan says that the verse: “Then the man only who lay with her shall die,” indicates that in some cases only one of them is liable to receive the death penalty.

ורבי יוחנן האי סברא מנא ליה אם כן נכתוב קרא בעולת איש מאי בעולת בעל שמע מינה תרתי:

The Gemara asks: And Rabbi Yoḥanan, from where does he derive this conclusion that only a woman’s husband can render her a non-virgin through intercourse in an atypical manner, if he uses this verse to derive the mode of betrothal by means of sexual intercourse? The Gemara answers: If so, that this verse is teaching only one halakha, let the verse write: If a man be found lying with a beulat ish, literally, a woman who engaged in sexual intercourse with a man. What is indicated by the term “beulat ba’al,” literally, who engaged in sexual intercourse with a husband? Learn two halakhot from it: First, that one can betroth a woman through intercourse, and second, that only a woman’s husband can render her a non-virgin by intercourse in an atypical manner.

איבעיא להו תחילת ביאה קונה או סוף ביאה קונה נפקא מינה כגון שהערה בה ופשטה ידה וקבלה קדושין מאחר

§ A dilemma was raised before the Sages: Since intercourse is not a momentary act but has different stages, does the beginning of intercourse effect acquisition or does the end of intercourse effect acquisition? When exactly is the moment of betrothal? The Gemara comments: The practical difference resulting from this question is in a case where one engaged in only the initial stage of intercourse with her and in the meantime she reached her hand out and accepted betrothal from another man. If the beginning of sexual intercourse effects acquisition, the other man’s betrothal is meaningless. If the end of sexual intercourse effects acquisition, she is betrothed to the other man.

אי נמי לכהן גדול דקא קני בתולה בביאה מאי אמר אמימר משמיה דרבא כל הבועל דעתו על גמר ביאה:

Alternatively, there is a difference with regard to a High Priest who acquires a virgin through sexual intercourse. If only the end of intercourse effects acquisition, she is no longer a virgin at the time of the betrothal, which would mean that a High Priest cannot acquire a woman through intercourse, as it is prohibited for him to marry a non-virgin (Leviticus 21:14). What, then, is the halakha? Ameimar said in the name of Rava: Anyone who engages in sexual intercourse has the completion of the act of intercourse in mind, not the beginning. Therefore, the acquisition is complete only when the act has been completed.

איבעיא להו ביאה נשואין עושה או אירוסין עושה נפקא מינה ליורשה

Additionally, a dilemma was raised before the Sages: Does the sexual intercourse that is performed to effect betrothal effect marriage at the same time that it effects betrothal, or does it effect only betrothal? The practical difference that arises from this question concerns all cases where it matters whether a woman is betrothed or married. For example, one issue is whether the act allows him to inherit property from her. If he betroths her through intercourse, does he inherit her property when she dies as he would if they were married?

וליטמא לה ולהפר נדריה אי אמרת נשואין עושה יורשה ומיטמא לה ומיפר נדריה ואי אמרת אירוסין עושה אינו יורשה ואינו מיטמא לה ואינו מיפר נדריה מאי

And if he is a priest, is he required to become ritually impure to bury her, as he must do for his wife? And similarly, does a betrothal through intercourse allow him to nullify her vows by himself, without her father’s participation? If you say that intercourse effects marriage, he inherits property from her, and he becomes impure to bury her, and he nullifies her vows alone. And if you say that it effects only betrothal, he does not inherit property from her, and he does not become ritually impure to bury her, and he cannot nullify her vows alone. What, then, is the halakha?

אמר אביי תא שמע האב זכאי בבתו בקדושיה בכסף בשטר ובביאה וזכאי במציאתה ובמעשה ידיה ובהפרת נדריה ומקבל את גיטה ואינו אוכל פירות בחייה נישאת יתר עליו הבעל שאוכל פירות בחייה

Abaye said: Come and hear a resolution from the following mishna (Ketubot 46b): A father has authority over his daughter with regard to her betrothal, whether it is through money, through a document, or through sexual intercourse. Likewise, a father has a right to items she has found, and to her earnings, and to effect the nullification of her vows, i.e., a father may nullify his daughter’s vows. And he accepts her bill of divorce on her behalf if she is divorced from betrothal before she becomes a grown woman. And although he inherits her property when she dies, e.g., property she inherited from her mother’s family, he does not enjoy the profits of her property during her lifetime. If the daughter married, the husband has more rights and obligations than her father had before the marriage, as he enjoys the profits of her property during her lifetime.

קתני ביאה וקתני נישאת כי קתני נישאת אשארא

The mishna teaches that a man has rights to his daughter’s betrothal through sexual intercourse, and it subsequently teaches: If the daughter married. This indicates that intercourse effects only betrothal. The Gemara rejects this claim: When it teaches: If the daughter married, that is referring to the other modes mentioned here, i.e., betrothal by means of money or a document. In these cases there is a difference between betrothal and marriage, while it is possible that betrothal through intercourse effects marriage as well.

אמר רבא תא שמע בת שלש שנים ויום אחד מתקדשת בביאה ואם בא עליה יבם קנאה וחייבין עליה משום אשת איש ומטמאה את בועלה

Rava said: Come and hear a resolution from a baraita: A girl who is three years and one day old can be betrothed through intercourse, and if her yavam engaged in intercourse with her, he has acquired her. And if she is married, one is liable if he engages in intercourse with her, due to her status as a married woman. And if she is impure as a menstruating woman, she renders one who engages in intercourse with her ritually impure for seven days.

לטמא משכב תחתון כעליון

And he renders impure the object upon which he lies like the upper one. One who engages in sexual intercourse with a menstruating woman renders the objects upon which he lies ritually impure even if he has no direct contact with them.

ואם נישאת לכהן אוכלת בתרומה ואם בא עליה אחד מכל עריות שבתורה מומתין על ידה והיא פטורה ואם בא עליה אחד מן הפסולין פסלה מן הכהונה

And if she marries a priest she may partake of teruma from that point onward. And if one of those with whom sexual relations are forbidden by the Torah (see Leviticus, chapter 18) engages in intercourse with her, he is put to death due to his sin with her, and she is exempt from punishment as a minor. And if someone of unfit lineage, i.e., a man who would disqualify her from marrying a priest if he engaged in sexual intercourse with her, engages in intercourse with her, he has disqualified her from marrying into the priesthood. This concludes the baraita.

קתני ביאה וקתני נישאת הכי קאמר אי הני נשואין דכהן נינהו אוכלת בתרומה

The Gemara analyzes this source. It is taught in that baraita: She can be betrothed through sexual intercourse, and it is taught separately: And if she marries a priest. This indicates that intercourse does not effect marriage. The Gemara rejects this: This is what the baraita said: If this betrothal through intercourse is a marriage to a priest, she may partake of teruma. It is possible that there are not two separate stages here but a single action, as sexual intercourse effects marriage.

תא שמע וכבר שלח יוחנן בן בג בג אצל רבי יהודה בן בתירה לנציבין שמעתי עליך שאתה אומר ארוסה בת ישראל אוכלת בתרומה שלח לו ואתה אי אתה אומר כן מוחזקני בך שאתה בקי בחדרי תורה לדרוש בקל וחומר אי אתה יודע

Come and hear a proof from a baraita: And Yoḥanan ben Bag Bag already sent a message to Rabbi Yehuda ben Beteira in the city of Netzivin: I heard about you that you say that the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest may partake of teruma. Rabbi Yehuda ben Beteira sent back this reply to him: And do you not say so? I know about you that you are an expert in many areas of Torah; do you not know how to teach halakhot based on an a fortiori inference?

ומה שפחה כנענית שאין ביאתה מאכילתה בתרומה כספה מאכילתה בתרומה זו שביאתה מאכילתה בתרומה אינו דין שכספה מאכילתה בתרומה אבל מה אעשה שהרי אמרו חכמים אין ארוסה בת ישראל אוכלת בתרומה עד שתכנס לחופה

The a fortiori inference is as follows: If in the case of a Canaanite maidservant, whose sexual intercourse with a priest does not allow her to partake of teruma, as she is not betrothed to him, her money, i.e., if a priest acquires her through money, allows her to partake of teruma, is it not logical with regard to this betrothed woman, whose sexual intercourse with a priest allows her to partake of teruma, that her betrothal money from the priest should allow her to partake of teruma? If this is indeed the case, the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest should be permitted to partake of teruma. But what can I do, as the Sages said: By rabbinic law, the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest may not partake of teruma until she enters the wedding canopy.

היכי דמי אי בביאה שעל ידי חופה וכסף שעל ידי חופה בתרוייהו מיכל אכלה

The Gemara clarifies: What are the circumstances of the comparison between money and sexual intercourse? If it is referring to a case of sexual intercourse by means of a wedding canopy, i.e., after they are married, and betrothal through money where the marriage is then completed by means of a wedding canopy, in both cases she may partake of teruma even by rabbinic law, as she is a full-fledged married woman.

ואלא בביאה שעל ידי חופה וכסף שלא על ידי חופה הכא תרתי והכא חדא אלא לאו בביאה שלא על ידי חופה וכסף שלא על ידי חופה

Or rather one could say that this comparison is referring to sexual intercourse by means of a wedding canopy, and betrothal through money not by means of a wedding canopy. If so, the a fortiori inference is not valid, as here, in the case of intercourse, there are two stages of acquisition, intercourse followed by the wedding canopy, and here, in the case of money, there is only one stage. Rather, is it not correct to say that the comparison between money and intercourse is referring to sexual intercourse not by means of a wedding canopy and also money not by means of a wedding canopy?

אי אמרת בשלמא נשואין עושה משום הכי פשיטא ליה דאלימא לה ביאה מכסף אלא אי אמרת קדושין עושה מאי שנא הכא דפשיטא ליה ומאי שנא הכא דמספקא ליה

Granted, if you say that intercourse by itself effects marriage, it is due to that reason that it is obvious to Rabbi Yehuda ben Beteira that the mode of sexual intercourse is stronger than money, and allows her to partake of teruma. But if you say that sexual intercourse effects only betrothal, what is different here, in the case of betrothal through intercourse, that it is obvious to him that it allows her to partake of teruma, and what is different here, in the case of betrothal through money, that he is uncertain and must derive the matter through an a fortiori inference? In both cases she is only betrothed.

אמר רב נחמן בר יצחק לעולם אימא לך בביאה שעל ידי חופה וכסף שלא על ידי חופה ודקאמרת הכא תרתי והכא חדא קל וחומר מיהא איתיה

Rav Naḥman bar Yitzḥak said: Actually, I will say to you that he is speaking about sexual intercourse by means of a wedding canopy and money not by means of a wedding canopy. And as for that which you said in opposition to this a fortiori inference: Here there are two stages of acquisition, and here there is only one stage. In any event, there is a valid a fortiori inference.

והכי שלח ליה ומה שפחה כנענית שאין ביאתה מאכילתה בתרומה אפילו על ידי חופה כספה מאכילתה בלא חופה זו שביאתה מאכילתה בתרומה על ידי חופה אינו דין שכספה מאכילתה בתרומה בלא חופה

And this is what Rabbi Yehuda ben Beteira sent him, i.e., his statement should be understood as follows: If a Canaanite maidservant, whose intercourse with a priest does not allow her to partake of teruma, even by means of a wedding canopy, and yet her money allows her to partake of teruma without the means of a wedding canopy, is it not logical with regard to this betrothed woman, whose intercourse with a priest allows her to partake of teruma by means of a wedding canopy, that her betrothal money from the priest should allow her to partake of teruma without the means of a wedding canopy?

אבל מה אעשה שהרי אמרו חכמים אין ארוסה בת ישראל אוכלת בתרומה עד שתכנס לחופה משום דעולא

But what can I do, as the Sages said: By rabbinic law, the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest may not partake of teruma until she enters the wedding canopy, due to the reason stated by Ulla. According to Ulla, there is a concern that she may feed her siblings or members of her family teruma while she is still living in her father’s house.

ובן בג בג גבי שפחה כנענית לא שייר בקנינה הכא שייר בקנינה

And ben Bag Bag explains why one cannot accept this a fortiori inference involving a Canaanite maidservant: With regard to a Canaanite maidservant who is purchased with money, the buyer does not leave out anything from her acquisition, i.e., he completes the purchase in full. Here, in the case of betrothal, he leaves out part of her acquisition, as the stage of marriage has yet to be performed. Therefore, these two cases are dissimilar.

רבינא אמר מדאורייתא מיפשט פשיטא ליה דאכלה ומדרבנן הוא דשלח ליה

Ravina said that by Torah law, it is obvious to Yoḥanan ben Bag Bag that she may partake of teruma also when she is betrothed to a priest through money alone, as she is acquired with his money. And the question that he sent him is referring to the halakha by rabbinic law.

והכי שלח ליה שמעתי עליך שאתה אומר ארוסה בת ישראל אוכלת בתרומה ולא חיישת לסימפון שלח ליה ואתה אי אתה אומר כן מוחזקני בך שאתה בקי בחדרי תורה לדרוש בקל וחומר אי אתה יודע

Ravina elaborates: And this is the question that he sent to him: I heard about you that you say that in practice the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest may partake of teruma, and we are not concerned about an annulling factor [simfon], i.e., that he might find some blemish in her through which the betrothal would be considered retroactively invalid. If so, she would have eaten teruma when she was not permitted to do so. And it was with regard to this issue that Rabbi Yehuda ben Beteira sent to him: And do you not say this? I know about you that you are an expert in many areas of Torah; do you not know how to teach halakhot based on an a fortiori inference?

ומה שפחה כנענית שאין ביאתה מאכילתה בתרומה כספה מאכילתה בתרומה ולא חיישינן לסימפון זו שביאתה מאכילתה בתרומה אינו דין שכספה מאכילתה בתרומה ולא ניחוש לסימפון אבל מה אעשה שהרי אמרו חכמים ארוסה בת ישראל אינה אוכלת בתרומה

The a fortiori inference is as follows: If a Canaanite maidservant, whose engaging in intercourse with a priest does not allow her to partake of teruma, and yet her receiving purchase money allows her to partake of teruma, and we are not concerned about simfon, i.e., that the Canaanite maidservant may have some physical blemish that nullifies her purchase retroactively, is it not logical with regard to this betrothed woman, whose intercourse with a priest allows her to partake of teruma, that her receiving betrothal money from the priest should allow her to partake of teruma even before entering the wedding canopy, and we should not be concerned about simfon? But what can I do, as the Sages said: By rabbinic law the daughter of a non-priest betrothed to a priest may not partake of teruma